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    Did some pissed off anti-gay priest write anti-gay stuff in the Bible?

    Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Religion & Philosophy
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    • B Offline
      beststriker
      last edited by

      is that why Christians don't like gay people?

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      • raphjdR Offline
        raphjd Forum Administrator
        last edited by

        Most of the anti-gay stuff in the bible is due to mistranslations.

        Often, historically written "prostitute" is written in more modern times as "homosexual".  By "modern" times, I mean the last 800 years or so.

        The bible OT and NT are against pagan rituals because they want you to convert to their religion.

        The rule against laying with a man as with a woman is probably another mistranslation.  It's thought that it's about not laying with a temple prostitute as you would with a normal woman.

        Also, think of this;  you are a tribe of people hellbent on fighting with all of your neighbors, you can't have your men having unproductive sex.  Your men need to be banging women to reproduce.

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        • U Offline
          USHorizon
          last edited by

          Bump. He's right.
          Check out John Boswell's Christianity, Social Tolerance, and Homosexuality: Gay People in Western Europe from the Beginning of the Christian Era to the Fourteenth Century

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          • Shami94S Offline
            Shami94
            last edited by

            The word "homosexual" first appeared in print in the 1860's. It is the product of modern psychological understanding and the theory of the unconscious or subconscious mind. The concept of an innate unconscious behavioural disposition did not exist before then.

            The earliest translation of the Bible that contains the word "homosexual" was in 1941. If we accept that the Greek word "Arsenokoites" means a man bedding (having sex with) and another man, something highly debatable, homosexuality is an obviously incorrect translation.

            1. more than half of homosexuals are women.
            2. many homosexual men don't or have not yet had sex with another man, but they are still homosexuals.
            3. if surveys are to believed, the small proportion of heterosexual men that have had sex with another man actually outnumber the total number of homosexual men since the proportion of men who are homosexual is so small.
            4. Sexuality refers to a disposition, i.e. who are are sexuality attracted to. It does not refer to any sexual act.

            The modern translations of the Bible that print the word "homosexual" are therefore clearly and absolutely wrong. The mistranslation changes the meaning from condemning people for what they do, to condemning people for how they were born.

            https://rationalwiki.org/wiki/Arsenokoites

            http://canyonwalkerconnections.com/word-homosexual-first-introduced-bible/

            https://www.forgeonline.org/blog/2019/3/8/what-about-romans-124-27

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