The effect of gay marriage on marriage itself
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Since legalizing registered partnerships and gay marriage in Scandinavia, an overwhelming number of adults have simply stopped bothering to get married in the first place
This is cum hoc ergo propter hoc in all its splendor.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Correlation_does_not_imply_causation
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Of course, the article in the Huffington Post goes on to say
a) "It should be noted that the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) also shows Sweden's marriage rates increasing since domestic partnership. The trend line is in the opposite direction than what the "Bishop" and O'Reilly claimed. "
b) Additionally, using the date of 2009, we see marriage rates decline and increase, with neither the highest nor lowest matching Sweden's highest or lowest marriage rates.
c) Denmark only legalized gay marriage last year, so there is no trend data. But recognizing same-sex partnerships didn't negatively impact the rate of marriage.
d) Ditto Norway
re: Marriage
You have two options here. Either strip marriage of all it's legal meaning and have it be a strictly religious title. Or let it have a legal meaning and open it to all consenting adults.
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Since legalizing registered partnerships and gay marriage in Scandinavia, an overwhelming number of adults have simply stopped bothering to get married in the first place
This is cum hoc ergo propter hoc in all its splendor.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Correlation_does_not_imply_causation
Go on, do tell.
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The USA has always skewed predominantly pro-marriage, much more so than Scandinavia, where like the rest of Europe, couples are more likely to live together and have children without ever marrying. So a look at the numbers would be helpful… to weed out the junk correlatives.
Marriage rates for the USA by state: 1990, 1995, and 1999 through 2011.
States where gay marriage was legal before 2011.
States where gay marriage was legal after 2011 (and thus, no data). -
1. Where is your statistics for scandinavia to compare to the U.S..
2. By Europe do you mean all of Europe, all Europeans have more unmarried cohabitation.
3. I meant explain your reasoning for stating it was a false cause fallacy from above. I hope you have a better source than wikipedia.
4. I never mentioned the effect on U.S. marriages. I only mentioned scandinavia. -
So a look at the numbers would be helpful… to weed out the junk correlatives.
Europe's marriage rate 1960–2012 (per 1,000 inhabitants) including countries with legal gay marriage
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Correlation doesn't man causation
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3. I meant explain your reasoning for stating it was a false cause fallacy from above. I hope you have a better source than wikipedia.
Again, I say cite your sources and explain your justification for the false cause fallacy. Anyone can post numbers, all I see is the number of marriages and not of cohabitation. If it says approximately 5 per 1000 are married in Sweden, then this doesn't mean that the other 995 per 1000 are cohabitating. That is a very weak induction. You can go from specific to general, but not general to specific (see square of opposition). The set membership comprising non-married includes single people and widows or widowers. This is still not proof of greater cohabitation in Europe. Since you like fallacies, this is a fallacy of division; something that is true for the whole class (non-married) is not true for all of its parts (cohabiters, etc.). Please list the junk correlatives. In addition, please provide evidence tying into your previous post about how many non-married Europeans are cohabitating in addition to having kids as well as those that don't.
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Correlation doesn't man causation
That's true man!
Repeating what has been said, so intelligent. :cry2: :cry2:
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